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PRM Certification - Exam I: Finance Theory, Financial Instruments, Financial Markets – 2015 Edition 試験
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Question No : 1
Which of the following are true:
I. A interest rate cap is effectively a call option on an underlying interest rate
II. The premium on a cap is determined by the volatility of the underlying rate
III. A collar is more expensive than a cap or a floor
IV. A floor is effectively a put option on an underlying interest rate
正解:
Explanation:
Interest rate caps are effectively call options on an underlying interest rate that protect the buyer of the cap against a rise in interest rates over the agreed exercise rate. As with options, the premium on the cap depends upon the volatility of the underlying rates as one of its variables. A floor is the exact opposite of a cap, ie it is effectively a put option on an underlying interest rate that protects the buyer of the floor against a fall in interest rates below the agreed exercise rate.
A cap protects a borrower against a rise in interest rates beyond a point, and a floor protects a lender against a fall in interest rates below a point.
A collar is a combination of a long cap and a short floor, the idea being that the premium due on the cap is offset partly by the premium earned on the short floor position. Therefore a collar is less expensive than a cap or a floor.
Question No : 2
Caps, floors and collars are instruments designed to:
正解:
Explanation:
Interest rate caps are effectively call options on an underlying interest rate that protect the buyer of the cap against a rise in interest rates over the agreed exercise rate. As with options, the premium on the cap depends upon the volatility of the underlying rates as one of its variables. A floor is the exact opposite of a cap, ie it is effectively a put option on an underlying interest rate that protects the buyer of the floor against a fall in interest rates below the agreed exercise rate.
A cap protects a borrower against a rise in interest rates beyond a point, and a floor protects a lender against a fall in interest rates below a point.
A collar is a combination of a long cap and a short floor, the idea being that the premium due on the cap is offset partly by the premium earned on the short floor position. Therefore a collar is less expensive than a cap or a floor.
Caps, floors and collars provide a hedge against interest rate risks, but do not protect against changes in credit spreads unless the reference rate already includes the spread (eg, by reference to the corporate bond rate), and they certainly do not have anything to do with gamma risk. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
Question No : 3
An investor believes that the market is likely to stay where it is.
Which of the following option strategies will help him profit should his view be proven correct (assume all strategies described below are long only)?
正解:
Explanation:
Only the butterfly spread has a payoff profile that benefits when prices do not move much. The collar benefits during declining markets, the straddle and the strangle benefit from sharp movements in the markets. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
Question No : 4
Credit risk in the case of a CDO (Collateralized Debt Obligation) is borne by:
正解:
Explanation:
Investors in CDOs bear credit risk. The SPV is merely a conduit that owns the underlying assets on which the sponsoring institution has bought protection. The investors have sold them this protection, and are on the hook for defaults or other credit events. The reference entity is relevant only to CDSs, not CDOs. Choice 'b' is the correct answer.
Question No : 5
The cheapest to deliver bond for a treasury bond futures contract is the one with the :
正解:
Explanation:
Treasury bond futures do not specify which bond can be used to effect delivery, but allow the seller to pick from a number of available bonds. As a result, one of these eligible bonds emerges as being the 'cheapest' to deliver, and this CTD bond is determined by the basis between the cash price of the bond and the futures spot price as adjusted by the conversion factor for this specific bond. (ie, basis = Cash Price of the Bond - Futures Price
x Conversion Factor)
The bond with the lowest basis is generally the CTD - therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
Question No : 6
If the spot price for a commodity is lower than the forward price, the market is said to be in:
正解:
Explanation:
When the forward prices are greater than the spot prices, the market is said to be in contango. When forward prices are lower than spot prices, the market is said to be backwarded. A short squeeze may contribute to backwardation. Choice 'a' is the correct answer.
Question No : 7
Backwardation can happen in markets where
正解:
Explanation:
Convenience yield is the benefit from having access to the commodity - and if the convenience yield is very high, for example in a market where manufacturers must never run out of a particular raw material, then these can switch the total cost of carry (which include interest and storage costs, less convenience yields) to being negative. This causes forward prices to become lower than spot prices, a phenomenon known as backwardation. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer. If convenience yields are less than other carrying costs, then backwardation will not happen. The sign of convenience yields does not matter, what matters is their relative magnitude when compared to the other costs of carry.
To understand this in an intuitive way, consider that forward prices are nothing but spot prices, plus interest, plus storage costs, less convenience yields. If interest and storage costs are less than the convenience yield, the market will be backwarded.
Question No : 8
When graphing the efficient frontier, the two axes are:
正解:
Explanation:
The efficient frontier is plotted on a graph with portfolio return (mean) as the y-axis and portfolio volatility, or standard deviation, on the x-axis. Asset beta and standard deviation of the market portfolio have nothing to do with the determination of the efficient portfolio. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer, and the rest of the choices are incorrect.
Question No : 9
Which of the following expressions represents Jensen's alpha, where is the expected return, is the standard deviation of returns, rm is the return of the market portfolio and rf is the risk free rate:
正解:
Explanation:
The Sharpe ratio is the ratio of the excess returns of a portfolio to its volatility. It provides an intuitive measure of a portfolio's excess return over the risk free rate. The Sharpe ratio is calculated as [(Portfolio return - Risk free return)/Portfolio standard deviation].
The Treynor ratio is similar to the Sharpe ratio, but instead of using volatility in the denominator, it uses the portfolio's beta. Therefore the Treynor Ratio is calculated as [(Portfolio return - Risk free return)/Portfolio's beta]. Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer.
Jensen's alpha is another risk adjusted performance measure. It considers only the 'alpha', or the return attributable to a portfolio manager's skill. It is the difference between the return of the portfolio, and what the portfolio should theoretically have earned. Any portfolio can
be expected to earn the risk free rate (rf), plus the market risk premium (which is given by [Beta x (Market portfolio's return - Risk free rate)]. Jensen's alpha is therefore the actual return earned less the risk free rate and the beta return. Choice 'c' is the correct answer. Refer to the tutorial on risk adjusted performance measures for more details.
Question No : 10
An investor enters into a 4 year interest rate swap with a bank, agreeing to pay a fixed rate of 4% on a notional of $100m in return for receiving LIBOR.
What is the value of the swap to the investor two years hence, immediately after the net interest payments are exchanged? Assume the 2 year swap rate is 5%, and the yield curve is also flat at 5%
正解:
Explanation:
The swap can be valued by using the new swap rate of 5%. The investor is paying fixed and receiving LIBOR, and can effectively get out of his position by entering into a swap to receive 5% and pay LIBOR. This will leave him/her with a net cash flow of 1% for two years, ie $1m for 2 years that can be discounted to the present using the rates provided, ie =(1/1.05 + 1/(1.05^2)) = $1,859,410.
Detailed explanation:
An Interest Rate Swap exchanges fixed interest flows for floating rate flows. The floating rate leg is tied to some reference rate, such as LIBOR. The parties exchange net cash flows periodically. Conceptually, an interest rate swap is the combination of a fixed coupon bond and a floating rate note. The party receiving the fixed rate is long the fixed coupon bond and short the FRN, and the party receiving the floating rate is long the FRN and short the fixed coupon bond.
An interest rate swap can be valued as the difference between the two hypothetical bonds. FRNs sell for par at issue time as they pay whatever the current rate is, subject to periodic resets. Therefore immediately after a payment is made on a swap, the value of the FRN component is equal to its par value. The bond can be valued by discounting its cash flows. The difference between the two represents the value of the swap. When the swap is entered into, the fixed rate leg is set in such a way that the value of the hypothetical bond is equal to that of the FRN, and the swap is valued at zero. The rate at which the fixed rate leg is set is called the swap rate. Over its life, market rates change and the value of the fixed coupon bond equivalent in our swap diverges from par (whereas the FRN stays at par - at least right after payments are exchanged and the new floating rate is set for the next period). Thus the swap acquires a non-zero value.
There are two ways to value a swap. If interest rates for the future are known, the bond and the FRN can be valued and their difference will be equal to the value of the swap. Sometimes, the current swap rates are known. In such a case, the swap can be valued by imagining entering into an opposite swap at the new swap rate, which will leave a residual fixed cash flow for the remaining life of the swap. This residual cash flow can be valued and that represents the value of the swap. For example, if a 4 year swap was entered into exchanging an annual fixed 5% payment on a notional of $100m for a floating payment equal to LIBOR, and at the end of year 1 the swap rate is 6%, then the party paying fixed can choose to enter into a new swap to receive 6% and pay LIBOR. All cash flows between the old and the new swap will offset each other except a net receipt of 1% for the next 3
years. This cash flow can be valued using the current yield curve and represents the value of the swap.
Question No : 11
Which of the following statements are true:
I. A credit default swap provides exposure to credit risk alone and none to credit spreads
II. A CDS contract provides exposure to default risk and credit spreads
III. A TRS can be used as a funding source by the party paying LIBOR or other floating rate
IV. A CLN is an unfunded security for getting exposure to credit risk
正解:
Explanation:
A CDS contract provides exposure to default risk and the credit spread for a particular credit. It does not provide an exposure to the risk of interest rates going up or down. It is an instrument that allows institutions to take a view on the price of credit risk alone. Therefore statement I is false and statement II is true.
A total return swap (TRS) exchanges the return from an asset for a fixed or floating exchange rate. It is in essence a financing arrangement where one party pays the other interest to earn a return on an asset that it does not wish to hold itself, perhaps for liquidity reasons. The financed asset is held by the party paying the asset's returns, effectively creating a 'collateral'. Therefore statement III is correct.
A credit linked note is a funded instrument where the sellers of the protection have put up the money upfront in the form of a subscription to a note in case the credit losses are realized. Therefore statement IV is not correct.
Question No : 12
What would be the expected return on a stock with a beta of 1.2, when the risk free rate is 3% and the broad market index is expected to earn 8%?
正解:
Explanation:
The stock has a beta of 1.2, therefore intuitively it can be expected to earn more than the broad market index. It will earn the risk free rate, ie 3%, and 1.2 times the equity risk premium of 5% (8% - 3%). The expected returns from the stock therefore are 3% + (8% - 3%)*1.2 = 9%
Question No : 13
For a forward contract on a commodity, an increase in carrying costs (all other factors remaining constant) has the effect of:
正解:
Explanation:
The forward price for a commodity is nothing but the spot price plus carrying costs till the maturity date of the forward contract. Any increase in carrying costs therefore has the effect of increasing the forward price. Note that carrying costs include interest cost in respect of funding the position, costs of storage, less any convenience yield. Increase in the carrying costs will not affect the spot prices.
Question No : 14
An investor expects stock prices to move either sharply up or down.
His preferred strategy should be to:
正解:
Explanation:
Straddles and strangles are strategies that would benefit from sharp movement in option prices, regardless of direction. These comprise a long call and a long put, which would benefit regardless of whether prices rise or fall. The only time they would lose money would be when prices stay constant.
A collar would gain when stock prices fall, and not when they rise. Since our investor does not have a view on the direction of the movement, this strategy will not work for him.
A butterfly spread or a condor would gain when prices stay range-bound, so that cannot be a useful strategy.
Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
Question No : 15
A bank holding a basket of credit sensitive securities transfers these to a special purpose vehicle (SPV), which sells notes based on these securities to third party investors.
Which of the following terms best describes this arrangement?
正解:
Explanation:
A traditional collateralized debt obligation (CDO) involves the complete transfer of securities to an SPV, which then issues notes or securities to investors. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
A synthetic CDO achieves the same result as a traditional CDO, but uses credit derivatives to synthetically create the same economic effect as a traditional CDO.
A credit default swap is a derivative instrument that pays in the event of the occurrence of agreed credit events. The arrangement described in the question is not a credit default swap purchase. n-th to default swap arrangements are similar to CDSs, but on a portfolio with the first 'n' losses being covered by the swap.